This page may be out of date. Submit any pending changes before refreshing this page.

Hide this message.

Sign In

Quora uses cookies to improve your experience. Read more

Prove that [math]F_n\mid F_m\iff n\mid m, \forall n,m\in\mathbb N, n\ge 3[/math], where [math]F_i[/math] is a Fibonacci number [math]\forall i\in\mathbb N_0[/math]

Robert Walker, Have first class degree in Maths from York University - and did postgraduate research in foundations of Mat...

Answered Sep 1, 2014 · Upvoted by David Joyce

Yes see: The Mathematical Magic of the Fibonacci Numbers

Several proofs here - these are old proofs from 1971:

A PRIMER FOR THE FIBONACCI NUMBERS; PART IX (1971)

Useful resource: The first 300 Fibonacci numbers, factored, and First 1000 Fibonacci numbers factored

338 Views · 3 Upvotes

View 1 Other Answer to this Question

About the Author

Robert Walker

Writer of articles on Mars and Space issues - Software Developer of Tune Smithy, Bounce Metronome etc.

Studied at Wolfson College, Oxford

Lives in Isle of Mull

4.8m answer views110.4k this month

Top Writer2017, 2016, and 2015

Published WriterHuffPost, Slate, and 4 more

ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ

About · Careers · Privacy · Terms · Contact